94) "QUESTIONS TO ASK MODERN BIBLE VERSION USERS"

Keith Piper

Q1: a) Which Bible version do you use? (NIV)

b) I use the KJV because of how the NIV handles Matthew 17:21. (What's it say?)

c) Do you have your NIV handy? Look up Matthew 17:21.

d) Now look up Matthew 18:11; 23:14; Mark 7:16: 9:44,46: 11:26; 15:28; Luke 17:36; 23:17; John 5:4; Acts 3:37: 15:34; 24:7; 28:29; Rom. 16:24.

e) Is it all right to take verses out of the Bible?

f) We know these verses are in the Bible because Tatian in his Diatessaron quotes every one of these gospel verses in 150 AD, and he had access to the original autographs to copy these verses from. Even Codex Sinaiticus quotes Luke 23:17.

Irenaeus (120-202 AD, Vol. 1, p.433) and Cyprian (200-258 AD, Vol. 5. p.268, 545) quote Acts 8:37.

Q2: Did any modern version supporter tell you that the United Bible Societies 3rd edition NT Greek text, from which the NIV is translated has 2,544 FEWER Greek words than does the KJV Received Text of Robert Stephanus?

The KJV (Textus Receptus) text has 140,521 Greek words

The NIV (United Bible Society - 3) text has 137,977 Greek words

Hence there are 2,544 fewer Greek words in UBS-3 TEXT (or 1.8% fewer greek words)

The NT modern version text of NIV has removed 2,544 Greek words from the NT.

If you include Mark 16:9-20 an John 7:53-8:11, which the NIV casts doubt on, the UBS/ NIV text has removed 2,886 Greek words from the NT, out of the 140,521 words in the Textus Receptus/KJV text. (2.1% removed).

The NT modern version Greek text is shorter by the size of the books of I Peter and II Peter. In addition, there have been many thousands of Greek words added or altered. (C. Carmichael of Johannesburg made the actual word count).

What would Jesus Christ say to this in view of Matthew 5:18 "Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled"?

Q3: How do modern version supporters explain why 90% of known NT manuscripts are of the received text/KJV type. Why do they have such strong, uniform agreement with each other?

Q4: Why were Codex Vaticanus and Codex Sinaiticus (on which NIV is based) not copied and distributed if they are supposed to be the "oldest and best manuscripts"?

Q5: If Codices Vaticanus and Sinaiticus are the "best manuscripts", why do they disagree between themselves 3061 times in the gospels alone?

Q6: By the year 500 AD, the NT manuscript text chosen by the wealthy upper classes who could afford to ignore the expense, was without exception of the Byzantine/KJV text type. Why?

These parchments being stained with purple and written in silver or gold, tell us that these wealthy, upper class Christians, who had greater knowledge of, and access to the true NT text, clearly preferred the Byzantine KJV text over the Alexandrian papyri. They would have known of the Alexandrian texts as corrupt, and hence rejected them. This is a strong argument for KJV readings. See "The Text of the NT" by Kurt Aland, p.77

Q7: Is God able to preserve His word to today?

Did Christians from 350 AD to 1881 AD not have the correct Word of God, until the Westcott and Hort heretics "saved the day" for God, the Bible, Christians and the world? Is God in control of Bible preservation or not? If God can give us His infallible word in the first century, is He unable to preserve it for Christians up to the 20th century?

Q8: Why does the NIV in Luke 11:2-4 omit key parts of the Lord's Prayer?

The devil would not want us to pray these omitted words.

Matthew 6:9-13 in both KJV and NIV show these omitted words to be part of the Lord's Prayer.
KJV
NIV, NASB, et al
Our Father which art in heaven

hallowed be thy name.

Thy kingdom come.

Thy will be done, as in heaven so in earth.

Give us day by day our daily bread

And forgive us our sins;

for we also forgive everyone

that is indebted to us.

And lead us not into temptation;

but deliver us from evil.

OMIT Father OMIT ,

hallowed be your name.

Your kingdom come,

OMIT .

Give us each day our daily bread.

Forgive us our sins

for we also forgive everyone

who sins against us.

And lead us not into temptation

OMIT .

a) Which "FATHER"? New Agers pray to another father which is not in heaven, but is the "god of this world". "Ye are of your father the devil". John 8:44.

Satan likes being called "Father" because he wants to be like the Most High.

b) "OUR" must be removed because it opposes the New Age idea of the "universal fatherhood of God". They think God is the Father of all people. They object to God being the Father only of Christians (John 1:12)

c) "WHICH ART IN HEAVEN" identifies the Father to be worshipped as God in heaven and not the devil.

d) "THY WILL BE DONE, AS IN HEAVEN, SO IN EARTH".

The devil does not want us to pray that God's will be done on earth as it is in heaven. Hence it is omitted.

e) "DELIVER US FROM EVIL". The devil doesn't want us to pray for God to deliver us from evil but rather he wants evil to come to us. Evil is to black and white. The devil doesn't want us to think about good and evil, heaven and hell, hence he removes them from the Luke 11:2-4 Lord's Prayer in modern versions.

Q9: Why does the NIV blaspheme Christ by putting Him in the place of Lucifer the devil in Isaiah 14:12?


NIV Isaiah 14:12 KJV
How you have fallen from heaven, How art thou fallen from heaven,

O MORNING STAR, O Lucifer, son of the morning!

how art thou cut down to the

ground,

which did weaken the nations. v.12

Thou hast said in thine heart....

I will be like the most High. v.14

But you are brought down to the Yet thou shalt be brought down to

GRAVE. hell. v.15

"Lucifer" (KJV) becomes "Morning Star" (NIV). But JESUS Christ calls Himself "the bright and morning star" Revelation 22:16.

So the NIV by inserting "morning star" in Isaiah 14:12,

a) Removes all mention of Lucifer as the devil's personal name from scripture.

b) Blasphemes Christ by accusing Him as the One who weakens the nations. v.12

c) Denies Christ's deity by stating that Christ wanted to be like the most High. v.14

d) Blasphemes Christ by predicting that He will be brought down to hell. v.15

e) They change "hell" to "grave", thus removing the warning against hell. v.15

f) Blasphemes Christ by saying that He has fallen from heaven. v.12.

Note: "MORNING STAR" (NIV) is a wrong translation because:

a) "STAR" (3556 Kokab) appears nowhere in Isaiah 14:12.

b) "MORNING" (7837 shachar) appears only once in v.12, (son of the morning), not twice as NIV claims.

c) "LUCIFER" (1966 heylel) comes from the root word "to shine" (1984 halal), and means "shining one" or "bright one".

d) The Septuagint translates it as "How has Lucifer, that rose in the morning, fallen from heaven".

Therefore, let us reject this blasphemous translation that makes Christ the cause of sin.

Q10: Why does the NIV REVERSE the meaning of Colossians 2:18 to endorse visions of angels? This change permits Roman Catholic visions of Mary as acceptable.


NIV Col. 2:18 KJV
worship of angels...such a person Worshipping of angels, intruding into

goes into great detail about what those things which he hath NOT seen. He HAS seen.

Q11: Why does NIV omit "fasting" 5 times, and weakens our prayer life 3 times".


NIV KJV
OMIT Matt..17:21 This kind goeth not out but by

prayer and fasting.

This kind can come out Mark 9:29 This kind can come forth by

only by prayer. OMIT nothing but by prayer and fasting

in hunger II Cor. 6:5 in fastings

devote yourselves to I Cor 7:5 give yourselves to fasting and

OMIT prayer prayer.

Four days ago I was Acts 10:30 Four days ago I was fasting...and

OMIT praying prayed

pray OMIT that Luke 21:36 pray always that

in prayer OMIT Acts 1:14 in prayer and supplication

the OMIT prayer the effectual fervent prayer

Maybe the devil doesn't like us fasting?

Q12: Why does NIV change the text to support Roman Catholic error, such as:

1) NIV Luke 1:28 KJV
OMIT Blessed art thou among women.

Roman Catholicism's "immaculate conception" of Mary teaches that she is above women, but Luke 1:28 teaches that she is only one among women.

2) NIV Matt. 1:25 KJV

gave birth to a OMIT son. brought forth her firstborn son.

Roman Catholicism's "perpetual virginity" of Mary is disproved if Jesus is only Mary's firstborn Son. It shows that she had other children as well.

3) NIV Acts 17:22 KJV
I see that in every way I perceive that in all things ye

you are very religious. are too superstitious.




(retorne à PÁGINA ÍNDICE de http://solascriptura-tt.org/Bibliologia-Traducoes)